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Q11. A customer does not own Check Point Gateways, but he wants to use Threat Emulation Service to detect SMTP Zero-Day vulnerabilities. What is his option? 

A. Needs to buy a Check Point security gateway. 

B. Purchase TE cloud service. 

C. Use SMTP plug-in on his exchange server. 

D. Needs to install Mail Transfer Agent on his firewall. 


Q12. Which of the following statements regarding the threat prevention database is NOT correct? 

A. The Security management server connects to the internet to get Malware Database updates. 

B. By default, updates run on the security gateway every two hours. 

C. The malware database only updates if you have a valid Anti-Bot/ or Anti-Virus contract. 

D. The security gateway contains a local cache of the malware requests. 


Q13. What advantage does the Recommended_Profile provide over the Default_Protection profile? 

A. Reduced server load 

B. Accelerated throughput 

C. Advanced reporting options 

D. Higher security posture 


Q14. John is troubleshooting a dropped traffic issue. Looking in SmartViewTracker, he cannot find anything related to it. What CLI command might help him in this situation where he suspects a possible problem with IPS? 

A. All of the information is visible in SmartViewTracker without additional commands. 

B. fw ctl pstat 

C. fw logexport | grep drop 

D. fw ctl zdebug drop 


Q15. In SmartViewTracker, you see a log record of type “control” and severity “critical” for the product “Threat Emulation” which says: “cloud emulation failed. Reason: failed to authenticate gateway...” 

What is likely to be the reason for this failure? 

A. The user provided the wrong credentials to the gateway 

B. The gateway should be configured in a way that Threat Emulation can be done locally in case the cloud is not accessible 

C. The cloud is not accessible right now 

D. Verify the gateway license / contract 


Q16. Which blades can support HTTPS inspection? 

A. Threat Prevention, Application Control, and IPS 

B. IPS, Advanced Networking, and Threat Prevention 

C. IPS, Application Control, DLP, Threat Prevention 

D. Application Control, Advanced Networking, Threat Prevention, IPS 


Q17. How can SmartEvent be launched out of SmartDashboard? 

A. Threat Prevention Tab > Launch SmartEvent 

B. Menu SmartConsole > SmartEvent 

C. Menu SmartConsole > SmartEvent or Threat Prevention Tab > Analyze and Report 

D. SmartEvent has always to be launched via Start > Programs 


Q18. Which of these is a Check Point Firewall attribute? 

A. Malicious P2P application protection 

B. Buffer overflow prevention 

C. Worm injection blocking 

D. Granular access control 


Q19. enforces or monitors traffic, based on the source or destination IP address of the country. 

A. IPS Recommended_Protections Profile 

B. Geo-protection 

C. Secure Web Gateway 

D. ThreatCloud 


Q20. Joey is the MegaCorp Firewall administrator. Which options does he have for the configuration of the Threat Emulation Analysis Location on his gateway? 

A. Only Check Point Threat Cloud 

B. Upload the Files to the Check Point SFTP-Server 

C. It depends on the operating systems that need to be supported 

D. Either Check Point Threat Cloud or locally (dedicated or existing gateway)