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Q21. Which protocol is best when there are circuit connections with two different ISPs in a multihoming scenario?
Q22. Which technology can block interfaces and provide a loop-free topology?
Q23. Which of the following is most accurate with respect to designing high availability within the Enterprise Campus network?
A. High availability at and between the Distribution and Access layers is as simple as redundant switches and redundant Layer 3 connections
B. Non-deterministic traffic patterns require a highly available modular topology design
C. Distribution layer high availability design includes redundant switches and Layer 3 equal-cost load sharing connections to the switched Access and routed Core layers, with a Layer 3 link between the Distribution switches to support summarization of routing information from the Distribution to the Core
D. Default gateway redundancy allows for the failure of a redundant Distribution switch without affecting endpoint connectivity
Q24. Which two of these correctly describe asymmetric routing and firewalls? (Choose two.)
A. only operational in routed mode
B. only operational in transparent mode
C. only eight interfaces can belong to an asymmetric routing group
D. operational in both failover and non-failover configurations
E. only operational when the firewall has been configured for failover
Q25. What network storage protocol uses a connection standard incompatible with shared 10Gb Ethernet physical connection?
Q26. Why is QoS important for in-band management?
A. It supports remote management when traffic volume is high.
B. It supports proper routing.
C. It supports network security against DoS attacks and worm outbreaks.
D. It supports network redundancy.
Q27. Click the Exhibit button.
Refer to the exhibit. Which Layer 2 feature detects a link failure between the switch and router B that decreases OSPF reconvergence to approximately 50 milliseconds?
Q28. Which statement best describes Cisco OTV internal interfaces?
A. They are Layer 2 interfaces that are configured as either access or trunk interfaces on the switch.
B. They are interfaces that perform Layer 3 forwarding with aggregation switches.
C. They are the interfaces that connect to the ISP.
D. They are tunnel interfaces that are configured with GRE encapsulation.
Q29. Which type of connectivity is required for VPLS?
A. full mesh
B. partial mesh
Q30. Refer to the exhibit.
Which of the following two are advantages of Server virtualization using VMware vSphere? (Choose two)
A. Retains the one-to-one relationship between switch ports and functional servers B. Enables the live migration of a virtual server from one physical server to another without disruption to users or loss of services
C. The access layer of the network moves into the vSphere ESX servers, providing streamlined vSphere management
D. Provides management functions including the ability to run scripts and to install third-party agents for hardware monitoring, backup, or systems management
E. New functional servers can be deployed with minimal physical changes on the network