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NEW QUESTION 1
Which two conditions are prerequisites for stateful failover for IPsec? (Choose two.)

  • A. Only the IKE configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IPsec configuration is copied automatically.
  • B. The active and standby devices can run different versions of the Cisco IOS software but must be the same type of device.
  • C. The IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device.
  • D. Only the IPsec configuration that is set up on the active device must be duplicated on the standby device; the IKE configuration is copied automatically.
  • E. The active and standby devices must run the same version of the Cisco IOS software and must be the same type of device.

Answer: BC

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/sec_conn_vpnav/configuration/15-mt/sec-vpn-availability-15-mt-book/sec-state-fail-ipsec.html

NEW QUESTION 2
Which flaw does an attacker leverage when exploiting SQL injection vulnerabilities?

  • A. user input validation in a web page or web application
  • B. Linux and Windows operating systems
  • C. database
  • D. web page images

Answer: C

Explanation:
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/sql_injection

NEW QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
350-701 dumps exhibit
Which statement about the authentication protocol used in the configuration is true?

  • A. The authentication request contains only a password
  • B. The authentication request contains only a username
  • C. The authentication and authorization requests are grouped in a single packet.
  • D. There are separate authentication and authorization request packets.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?

  • A. SAT
  • B. BAT
  • C. HAT
  • D. RAT

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
Which feature is configured for managed devices in the device platform settings of the Firepower Management Center?

  • A. quality of service
  • B. time synchronization
  • C. network address translations
  • D. intrusion policy

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 6
In a PaaS model, which layer is the tenant responsible for maintaining and patching?

  • A. hypervisor
  • B. virtual machine
  • C. network
  • D. application

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.bmc.com/blogs/saas-vs-paas-vs-iaas-whats-the-difference-and-how-to-choose/

NEW QUESTION 7
Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two.)

  • A. Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.
  • B. Use prepared statements and parameterized queries.
  • C. Secure the connection between the web and the app tier.
  • D. Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.
  • E. Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.

Answer: AB

Explanation:
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SQL_injection

NEW QUESTION 8
An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the corporate network. The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the latest build of Windows 10. What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the network?

  • A. Cisco Identity Services Engine and AnyConnect Posture module
  • B. Cisco Stealthwatch and Cisco Identity Services Engine integration
  • C. Cisco ASA firewall with Dynamic Access Policies configured
  • D. Cisco Identity Services Engine with PxGrid services enabled

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/vpn_client/anyconnect/anyconnect46/administration/guide/b_AnyConnect_Administrator_Guide_4-6/configure-posture.html

NEW QUESTION 9
Which feature requires a network discovery policy on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?

  • A. security intelligence
  • B. impact flags
  • C. health monitoring
  • D. URL filtering

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
In which cloud services model is the tenant responsible for virtual machine OS patching?

  • A. IaaS
  • B. UCaaS
  • C. PaaS
  • D. SaaS

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cmswire.com/cms/information-management/cloud-service-models-iaas-saas-paas-how-microsoft-office-365-azure-fit-in-021672.php

NEW QUESTION 11
An engineer configured a new network identity in Cisco Umbrella but must verify that traffic is being routed through the Cisco Umbrella network. Which action tests the routing?

  • A. Ensure that the client computers are pointing to the on-premises DNS servers.
  • B. Enable the Intelligent Proxy to validate that traffic is being routed correctly.
  • C. Add the public IP address that the client computers are behind to a Core Identity.
  • D. Browse to http://welcome.umbrella.com/ to validate that the new identity is working.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 12
For which two conditions can an endpoint be checked using ISE posture assessment? (Choose two.)

  • A. computer identity
  • B. Windows service
  • C. user identity
  • D. Windows firewall
  • E. default browser

Answer: BC

NEW QUESTION 13
Which technology must be used to implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches over a private IP cloud with any-to-any scalable connectivity?

  • A. DMVPN
  • B. FlexVPN
  • C. IPsec DVTI
  • D. GET VPN

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 14
What is a required prerequisite to enable malware file scanning for the Secure Internet Gateway?

  • A. Enable IP Layer enforcement.
  • B. Activate the Advanced Malware Protection license
  • C. Activate SSL decryption.
  • D. Enable Intelligent Proxy.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 15
Where are individual sites specified to be blacklisted in Cisco Umbrella?

  • A. application settings
  • B. content categories
  • C. security settings
  • D. destination lists

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
Which attack is commonly associated with C and C++ programming languages?

  • A. cross-site scripting
  • B. water holing
  • C. DDoS
  • D. buffer overflow

Answer: D

Explanation:
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Buffer_overflow

NEW QUESTION 17
Which proxy mode must be used on Cisco WSA to redirect TCP traffic with WCCP?

  • A. transparent
  • B. redirection
  • C. forward
  • D. proxy gateway

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/web-security-appliance/117940-qa-wsa-00.html

NEW QUESTION 18
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct protocol versions on the right.
[MISSING]

  • A. Mastered
  • B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
[MISSING]

NEW QUESTION 19
An engineer must force an endpoint to re-authenticate an already authenticated session without disrupting the endpoint to apply a new or updated policy from ISE. Which CoA type achieves this goal?

  • A. Port Bounce
  • B. CoA Terminate
  • C. CoA Reauth
  • D. CoA Session Query

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 20
What is a characteristic of traffic storm control behavior?

  • A. Traffic storm control drops all broadcast and multicast traffic if the combined traffic exceeds the level within the interval.
  • B. Traffic storm control cannot determine if the packet is unicast or broadcast.
  • C. Traffic storm control monitors incoming traffic levels over a 10-second traffic storm control interval.
  • D. Traffic storm control uses the Individual/Group bit in the packet source address to determine if the packet is unicast or broadcast.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/7600/ios/12-1E/configuration/guide/storm.html

NEW QUESTION 21
Which two deployment model configurations are supported for Cisco FTDv in AWS? (Choose two.)

  • A. Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by an FMCv installed in AWS
  • B. Cisco FTDv with one management interface and two traffic interfaces configured
  • C. Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by a physical FMC appliance on premises
  • D. Cisco FTDv with two management interfaces and one traffic interface configured
  • E. Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and IPv6 configured

Answer: AC

Explanation:
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/adaptive-security-virtual-appliance-asav/white-paper-c11-740505.html

NEW QUESTION 22
On which part of the IT environment does DevSecOps focus?

  • A. application development
  • B. wireless network
  • C. data center
  • D. perimeter network

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 23
An engineer used a posture check on a Microsoft Windows endpoint and discovered that the MS17-010 patch was not installed, which left the endpoint vulnerable to WannaCry ransomware. Which two solutions mitigate the risk of this ransomware infection? (Choose two.)

  • A. Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to install the MS17-010 patch before allowing access on the network.
  • B. Set up a profiling policy in Cisco Identity Service Engine to check and endpoint patch level before allowing access on the network.
  • C. Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to check that an endpoint patch level is met before allowing access on the network.
  • D. Configure endpoint firewall policies to stop the exploit traffic from being allowed to run and replicate throughout the network.
  • E. Set up a well-defined endpoint patching strategy to ensure that endpoints have critical vulnerabilities patched in a timely fashion.

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 24
Which Cisco product provides proactive endpoint protection and allows administrators to centrally manage the deployment?

  • A. NGFW
  • B. AMP
  • C. WSA
  • D. ESA

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 25
......

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