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Q371. Which two features does the show ipv6 snooping features command show information about? (Choose two.)
A. RA guard
B. DHCP guard
C. ND inspection
D. source guard
The show ipv6 snooping features command displays the first-hop features that are configured on the router. Examples
The following example shows that both IPv6 NDP inspection and IPv6 RA guard are configured on the router:
Router# show ipv6 snooping features
Feature name priority state
RA guard 100 READY
NDP inspection 20 READY
Q372. Which statement describes the effect of the configuration line redistribute maximum-prefix 1500 90 withdraw?
A. After the 1500th route is redistributed, a warning is posted in the log file and 90 more routes are redistributed before further routes are discarded.
B. After the 1350th route is redistributed, a warning is posted in the log file until the 1500th route is redistributed, and then further routes are discarded.
C. After the 1500th route is redistributed, further routes are discarded only if the CPU is above 90%.
D. The routing protocol receives 1500 routes. After the routing process has redistributed 90% of the routes, the process supernets routes and injects a NULL route to prevent black-hole routing.
Q373. Which three statements are true about VSS? (Choose three.)
A. VSS separates the control planes of the active and the standby chassis.
B. Configuration changes can be made on both active and standby chassis.
C. When the VSS active chassis recovers after a failure, it initiates a switchover and takes on the active role again.
D. VSS unifies the control planes of the active and the standby chassis.
E. HSRP configuration is not required to run VSS.
F. The VSS standby chassis monitors the VSS active chassis using the VSL.
VSS operates on a unified control plane with a distributed forwarding architecture in which the active supervisor (or switch) is responsible for actively participating with the rest of the network and for managing and maintaining control plane information. VSS actually removes the need for a next-hop redundancy protocol like HSRP or VRRP. These first-hop redundancy protocols are usually heavily tied to a fast-converging routing protocol like EIGRP, and still require that each device maintain its own control plane. The standby chassis monitors the active chassis using the VSL. If it detects failure, the standby chassis initiates a switchover and takes on the active role. When the failed chassis recovers, it takes on the standby role.
Q374. Which two statements best describe the difference between active mode monitoring and passive mode monitoring? (Choose two.)
A. Passive mode monitoring uses IP SLA to generate probes for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links.
B. Active mode monitoring is the act of Cisco PfR gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by NetfFow.
C. Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for obtaining performance characteristics of the current exit WAN link.
D. Passive mode monitoring uses NetFlow for obtaining performance characteristics of the exit WAN links.
. Passive and Active Monitoring
Passive monitoring is the act of OER gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by NetFlow. OER, when enabled, automatically enables NetFlow on the managed interfaces on the border routers. By aggregating this information on the border routers and periodically reporting the collected data to the master controller, the network prefixes and applications in use can automatically be learned. Additionally, attributes like throughput, reachability, loading, packet loss, and latency can be deduced from the collected flows. Active monitoring is the act of generating IP SLA probes to generate test traffic for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links. Active probes can either be implicitly generated by OER when passive monitoring has identified destination hosts, or explicitly configured by the network manager in the OER configuration.
Reference: http://products.mcisco.com/en/US/docs/solutions/Enterprise/WAN_and_MAN/Transport_div ersity/Transport_Diversity_PfR.html#wp199209
Q375. How does EIGRP derive the metric for manual summary routes?
A. It uses the best composite metric of any component route in the topology table.
B. It uses the worst composite metric of any component route in the topology table.
C. It uses the best metric vectors of all component routes in the topology table.
D. It uses the worst metric vectors of all component routes in the topology table.
For example if your router has a routing table like this:
D 192.168.8.0/24 [90/2632528] via 192.168.0.1, 00:00:12, Serial0/0
D 192.168.9.0/24 [90/2323456] via 192.168.0.1, 00:00:12, Serial0/0
D 192.168.10.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.0.1, 00:00:12, Serial0/0
D 192.168.11.0/24 [90/2323456] via 192.168.0.1, 00:00:12, Serial0/0
Now suppose you want to manually summarize all the routes above, you can use this command (on the router that advertised these routes to our router):
Router(config-if)#ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.8.0 255.255.248.0
After that the routing table of your router will look like this:
D 192.168.8.0/21 [90/2195456] via 192.168.0.1, 00:01:42, Serial0/0
And we can see the manual summary route takes the smallest metric of the specific routes.
Q376. Which two statements about IP SLAs are true? (Choose two.)
A. They are Layer 2 transport independent.
B. Statistics are collected and stored in the RIB.
C. Data for the delay performance metric can be collected both one-way and round-trip.
D. Data can be collected with a physical probe.
E. They are used primarily in the distribution layer.
Q377. Which two options are BGP attributes that are updated when router sends an update to its eBGP peer? (Choose two.)
B. local preference
AS_Path describes the inter-AS path taken to reach a destination. It gives a list of AS Numbers traversed when reaching to a destination. Every BGP speaker when advertising a route to a peer will include its own AS number in the NLRI. The subsequent BGP speakers who advertise this route will add their own AS number to the AS_Path, the subsequent AS numbers get prepended to the list. The end result is the AS_Path attribute is able to describe all the autonomous systems it has traversed, beginning with the most recent AS and ending with the originating AS.
NEXT_HOP Attribute specifies the next hop IP address to reach the destination advertised in the NLRI. NEXT_HOP is a well-known mandatory attribute that is included in every eBGP update.
Q378. Which three modes are valid PfR monitoring modes of operation? (Choose three.)
A. route monitor mode (based on BGP route changes)
B. RMON mode (based on RMONv1 and RMONv2 data)
C. passive mode (based on NetFlow data)
D. active mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
E. fast mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
F. passive mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes)
Mode monitor passive
Passive monitoring is the act of PfR gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by Netflow. Passive monitoring is typically only recommended in Internet edge deployments because active probing is ineffective because of security policies that block probing. PfR, when enabled, automatically enables Netflow on the managed interfaces on the Border Routers. By aggregating this information on the Border Routers and periodically reporting the collected data to the Master Controller, the network prefixes and applications in use can automatically be learned.
Mode monitor active
Active monitoring is the act of generating Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements (SLAs) probes to generate test traffic for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links. PfR can either implicitly generates active probes when passive monitoring has identified destination hosts, or the network manager can explicitly configured probes in the PfR configuration. When jitter probes are used (common use case), Target Discovery is used to learn the respond address and to automatically generate the probes.
Mode monitor Fast
This mode generates active probes through all exists continuously at the configured probe frequency. This differs from either active or both modes in that these modes only generate probes through alternate paths (exits) in the event the current path is out-of-policy.
Q379. Which two parameters does the Tunnel Mode Auto Selection feature select automatically? (Choose two.)
A. the tunneling protocol
B. the transport protocol
C. the ISAKMP profile
D. the transform-set
E. the tunnel peer
The Tunnel Mode Auto Selection feature eases the configuration and spares you about knowing the responder’s details. This feature automatically applies the tunneling protocol (GRE or IPsec) and transport protocol (IPv4 or IPv6) on the virtual template as soon as the IKE profile creates the virtual access interface. This feature is useful on dual stack hubs aggregating multivendor remote access, such as Cisco AnyConnect VPN Client, Microsoft Windows7 Client, and so on.
Q380. You are backing up a server with a 1 Gbps link and a latency of 2 ms. Which two statements about the backup are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bandwidth delay product is 2 Mb.
B. The default TCP send window size is the limiting factor.
C. The default TCP receive window size is the limiting factor.
D. The bandwidth delay product is 500 Mb.
E. The bandwidth delay product is 50 Mb.
1 Gbps is the same as 1000 Mbps, and 1000Mb x .0002 = 2 Mbps. With TCP based data transfers, the receive window is always the limiting factor, as the sender is generally able to send traffic at line rate, but then must wait for the acknowledgements to send more data.