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NEW QUESTION 1
While attending a meeting with the human resources department, an organization’s information security officer sees an employee using a username and password written on a memo pad to log into a specific service. When the information security officer inquires further as to why passwords are being written down, the response is that there are too many passwords to remember for all the different services the human resources department is required to use.
Additionally, each password has specific complexity requirements and different expiration time frames. Which of the following would be the BEST solution for the information security officer to recommend?

  • A. Utilizing MFA
  • B. Implementing SSO
  • C. Deploying 802.1X
  • D. Pushing SAML adoption
  • E. Implementing TACACS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
Joe, a hacker, has discovered he can specifically craft a webpage that when viewed in a browser crashes the browser and then allows him to gain remote code execution in the context of the victim’s privilege level. The browser crashes due to an exception error when a heap memory that is unused is accessed. Which of the following BEST describes the application issue?

  • A. Integer overflow
  • B. Click-jacking
  • C. Race condition
  • D. SQL injection
  • E. Use after free
  • F. Input validation

Answer: E

Explanation:
Use-After-Free vulnerabilities are a type of memory corruption flaw that can be leveraged by hackers to execute arbitrary code.
Use After Free specifically refers to the attempt to access memory after it has been freed, which can cause a program to crash or, in the case of a Use-After-Free flaw, can potentially result in the execution of arbitrary code or even enable full remote code execution capabilities.
According to the Use After Free definition on the Common Weakness Enumeration (CWE) website, a Use After Free scenario can occur when "the memory in question is allocated to another pointer validly at some point after it has been freed. The original pointer to the freed memory is used again and points to somewhere within the new allocation. As the data is changed, it corrupts the validly used memory; this induces undefined behavior in the process."
Incorrect Answers:
A: Integer overflow is the result of an attempt by a CPU to arithmetically generate a number larger than what can fit in the devoted memory storage space. Arithmetic operations always have the potential of returning unexpected values, which may cause an error that forces the whole program to shut down. This is not what is described in this question.
B: Clickjacking is a malicious technique of tricking a Web user into clicking on something different from what the user perceives they are clicking on, thus potentially revealing confidential information
or taking control of their computer while clicking on seemingly innocuous web pages. This is not what is described in this question.
C: A race condition is an undesirable situation that occurs when a device or system attempts to perform two or more operations at the same time, but because of the nature of the device or system, the operations must be done in the proper sequence to be done correctly. This is not what is described in this question.
D: SQL injection is a type of security explogt in which the attacker adds Structured Query Language (SQL) code to a Web form input box to gain access to resources or make changes to dat
A. This is not
what is described in this question.
F: Input validation is used to ensure that the correct data is entered into a field. For example, input validation would prevent letters typed into a field that expects number from being accepted. This is not what is described in this question.
References:
http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/U/use-after-free.HYPERLINK "http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/U/use-after-free.html"html
htHYPERLINK "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clickjacking"tps://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clickjacking http://searchstorage.tHYPERLINK "http://searchstorage.techtarget.com/definition/racecondition" echtarget.com/definition/race-condiHYPERLINK "http://searchstorage.techtarget.com/definition/race-condition"tion

NEW QUESTION 3
After investigating virus outbreaks that have cost the company $1,000 per incident, the company’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has been researching new antivirus software solutions to use and be fully supported for the next two years. The CISO has narrowed down the potential solutions to four candidates that meet all the company’s performance and capability requirements:
CAS-003 dumps exhibit
Using the table above, which of the following would be the BEST business-driven choice among five possible solutions?

  • A. Product A
  • B. Product B
  • C. Product C
  • D. Product D
  • E. Product E

Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 4
Given the following code snippet:
CAS-003 dumps exhibit
Of which of the following is this snippet an example?

  • A. Data execution prevention
  • B. Buffer overflow
  • C. Failure to use standard libraries
  • D. Improper filed usage
  • E. Input validation

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) is reviewing the IT centric BIA and RA documentation. The documentation shows that a single 24 hours downtime in a critical business function will cost the business $2.3 million. Additionally, the business unit which depends on the critical business function has determined that there is a high probability that a threat will materialize based on historical data. The CIO’s budget does not allow for full system hardware replacement in case of a catastrophic failure, nor does it allow for the purchase of additional compensating controls. Which of the following should the CIO recommend to the finance director to minimize financial loss?

  • A. The company should mitigate the risk.
  • B. The company should transfer the risk.
  • C. The company should avoid the risk.
  • D. The company should accept the ris

Answer: B

Explanation:
To transfer the risk is to defilect it to a third party, by taking out insurance for example. Incorrect Answers:
A: Mitigation is not an option as the CIO’s budget does not allow for the purchase of additional compensating controls.
C: Avoiding the risk is not an option as the business unit depends on the critical business function. D: Accepting the risk would not reduce financial loss.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 218

NEW QUESTION 6
A new piece of ransomware got installed on a company’s backup server which encrypted the hard drives containing the OS and backup application configuration but did not affect the deduplication data hard drives. During the incident response, the company finds that all backup tapes for this server are also corrupt. Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern?

  • A. Determining how to install HIPS across all server platforms to prevent future incidents
  • B. Preventing the ransomware from re-infecting the server upon restore
  • C. Validating the integrity of the deduplicated data
  • D. Restoring the data will be difficult without the application configuration

Answer: D

Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malware that restricts access to a computer system that it infects in some way, and demands that the user pay a ransom to the operators of the malware to remove the restriction.
Since the backup application configuration is not accessible, it will require more effort to recover the data.
Eradication and Recovery is the fourth step of the incident response. It occurs before preventing future problems.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Preventing future problems is part of the Lessons Learned step, which is the last step in the incident response process.
B: Preventing future problems is part of the Lessons Learned step, which is the last step in the incident response process.
C: Since the incident did not affect the deduplicated data, it is not included in the incident response process.
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ransomware
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 249

NEW QUESTION 7
The latest independent research shows that cyber attacks involving SCADA systems grew an average of 15% per year in each of the last four years, but that this year’s growth has slowed to around 7%. Over the same time period, the number of attacks against applications has decreased or stayed flat each year. At the start of the measure period, the incidence of PC boot loader or BIOS based attacks was negligible. Starting two years ago, the growth in the number of PC boot loader attacks has grown exponentially. Analysis of these trends would seem to suggest which of the following strategies should be employed?

  • A. Spending on SCADA protections should stay steady; application control spending should increase substantially and spending on PC boot loader controls should increase substantially.
  • B. Spending on SCADA security controls should stay steady; application control spending should decrease slightly and spending on PC boot loader protections should increase substantially.
  • C. Spending all controls should increase by 15% to start; spending on application controls should be suspended, and PC boot loader protection research should increase by 100%.
  • D. Spending on SCADA security controls should increase by 15%; application control spending should increase slightly, and spending on PC boot loader protections should remain steady.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Spending on the security controls should stay steady because the attacks are still ongoing albeit reduced in occurrence Due to the incidence of BIOS-based attacks growing exponentially as the application attacks being decreased or staying flat spending should increase in this field. Incorrect Answers:
A: The SCADA security control spending and not the SCADA protection spending should stay steady. There is no need to in spending on application control.
C: There is no n increase spending on all security controls.
D: This is partly correct, but the spending on application control does not have to increase and the BIOS protections should increase since these attacks are now more prevalent.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 343
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SCADA

NEW QUESTION 8
An organization uses IP address block 203.0.113.0/24 on its internal network. At the border router, the network administrator sets up rules to deny packets with a source address in this subnet from entering the network, and to deny packets with a destination address in this subnet from leaving the network. Which of the following is the administrator attempting to prevent?

  • A. BGP route hijacking attacks
  • B. Bogon IP network traffic
  • C. IP spoofing attacks
  • D. Man-in-the-middle attacks
  • E. Amplified DDoS attacks

Answer: C

Explanation:
The IP address block 203.0.113.0/24 is used on the internal network. Therefore, there should be no traffic coming into the network claiming to be from an address in the 203.0.113.0/24 range. Similarly, there should be no outbound traffic destined for an address in the 203.0.113.0/24 range. So this has been blocked at the firewall. This is to protect against IP spoofing attacks where an attacker external to the network sends data claiming to be from an internal computer with an address in the 203.0.113.0/24 range.
IP spoofing, also known as IP address forgery or a host file hijack, is a hijacking technique in which a cracker masquerades as a trusted host to conceal his identity, spoof a Web site, hijack browsers, or
gain access to a network. Here's how it works: The hijacker obtains the IP address of a legitimate host and alters packet headers so that the legitimate host appears to be the source.
When IP spoofing is used to hijack a browser, a visitor who types in the URL (Uniform Resource Locator) of a legitimate site is taken to a fraudulent Web page created by the hijacker. For example, if the hijacker spoofed the Library of Congress Web site, then any Internet user who typed in the URL www.loc.gov would see spoofed content created by the hijacker.
If a user interacts with dynamic content on a spoofed page, the hijacker can gain access to sensitive information or computer or network resources. He could steal or alter sensitive data, such as a credit card number or password, or install malware. The hijacker would also be able to take control of a compromised computer to use it as part of a zombie army in order to send out spam.
Incorrect Answers:
A: BGP is a protocol used to exchange routing information between networks on the Internet. BGP route hijacking is the process of using BGP to manipulate Internet routing paths. The firewall configuration in this question will not protect against BGP route hijacking attacks.
B: Bogon is an informal name for an IP packet on the public Internet that claims to be from an area of the IP address space reserved, but not yet allocated or delegated by the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) or a delegated Regional Internet Registry (RIR). The firewall configuration in this question will not protect against Bogon IP network traffic.
D: A man-in-the-middle attack is an attack where the attacker secretly relays and possibly alters the communication between two parties who believe they are directly communicating with each other. The firewall configuration in this question will not protect against a man-in-the-middle attack.
E: A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack occurs when multiple systems flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system, usually one or more web servers. Amplified DDoS attacks use more systems to ‘amplify’ the attack. The firewall configuration in this question will not protect against a DDoS attack.
References:
http://searchsecurity.techtargHYPERLINK "http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/IPspoofing" et.com/definition/IP-spoofing

NEW QUESTION 9
An administrator believes that the web servers are being flooded with excessive traffic from time to time. The administrator suspects that these traffic floods correspond to when a competitor makes major announcements. Which of the following should the administrator do to prove this theory?

  • A. Implement data analytics to try and correlate the occurrence times.
  • B. Implement a honey pot to capture traffic during the next attack.
  • C. Configure the servers for high availability to handle the additional bandwidth.
  • D. Log all traffic coming from the competitor's public IP addresse

Answer: A

Explanation:
There is a time aspect to the traffic flood and if you correlate the data analytics with the times that the incidents happened, you will be able to prove the theory.
Incorrect Answers:
B: A honey pot is designed to attract traffic and this will not prove the theory.
C: Configuring any of your servers for high availability will only accommodate the competitor and not prove your theory.
D: Logging all incoming traffic will not prove the theory as you want to check whether the incidents occur when the competitor makes major announcement a not all of the incoming traffic, even it if is from the competitor.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 114-115

NEW QUESTION 10
Users have been reporting unusual automated phone calls, including names and phone numbers, that appear to come from devices internal to the company. Which of the following should the systems administrator do to BEST address this problem?

  • A. Add an ACL to the firewall to block VoIP.
  • B. Change the settings on the phone system to use SIP-TLS.
  • C. Have the phones download new configurations over TFTP.
  • D. Enable QoS configuration on the phone VLA

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 11
A security analyst is inspecting pseudocode of the following multithreaded application:
1. perform daily ETL of data
1.1 validate that yesterday’s data model file exists
1.2 validate that today’s data model file does not exist
1.2 extract yesterday’s data model
1.3 transform the format
1.4 load the transformed data into today’s data model file
1.5 exit
Which of the following security concerns is evident in the above pseudocode?

  • A. Time of check/time of use
  • B. Resource exhaustion
  • C. Improper storage of sensitive data
  • D. Privilege escalation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12
Which of the following describes a risk and mitigation associated with cloud data storage?

  • A. Risk: Shared hardware caused data leakage Mitigation: Strong encryption at rest
  • B. Risk: Offsite replication Mitigation: Multi-site backups
  • C. Risk: Data loss from de-duplication Mitigation: Dynamic host bus addressing
  • D. Risk: Combined data archivingMitigation: Two-factor administrator authentication

Answer: A

Explanation:
With cloud data storage, the storage provider will have large enterprise SANs providing large pools of storage capacity. Portions of the storage pools are assigned to customers. The risk is that multiple customers are storing their data on the same physical hardware storage devices. This presents a risk (usually a very small risk, but a risk all the same) of other customers using the same cloud storage hardware being able to view your data.
The mitigation of the risk is to encrypt your data stored on the SAN. Then the data would be unreadable even if another customer was able to access it.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Offsite replication is used for disaster recovery purposes. It is not considered to be a risk as long as the data is secure in the other site. Multi-site backups are not a risk mitigation.
C: Data loss from de-duplication is not considered to be a risk. De-duplication removes duplicate copies of data to reduce the storage space required for the dat
A. Dynamic host bus addressing is not a risk mitigation.
D: Combined data archiving is not considered to be a risk. The archived data would be less accessible to other customers than the live data on the shared storage.

NEW QUESTION 13
Company XYZ has purchased and is now deploying a new HTML5 application. The company wants to hire a penetration tester to evaluate the security of the client and server components of the
proprietary web application before launch. Which of the following is the penetration tester MOST likely to use while performing black box testing of the security of the company’s purchased
application? (Select TWO).

  • A. Code review
  • B. Sandbox
  • C. Local proxy
  • D. Fuzzer
  • E. Port scanner

Answer: CD

Explanation:
C: Local proxy will work by proxying traffic between the web client and the web server. This is a tool that can be put to good effect in this case.
D: Fuzzing is another form of blackbox testing and works by feeding a program multiple input iterations that are specially written to trigger an internal error that might indicate a bug and crash it. Incorrect Answers:
A: A Code review refers to the examination of an application (the new HTML5 application in this case) that is designed to identify and assess threats to the organization. But this is not the most likely test to be carried out when performing black box testing.
B: Application sandboxing refers to the process of writing files to a temporary storage are (the socalled sandbox) so that you limit the ability of possible malicious code to execute on your computer.
E: Port scanning is used to scan TCP and UDP ports and report on their status. You can thus determine which services are running on a targeted computer.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 147, 154, 168-169, 174

NEW QUESTION 14
A security analyst, Ann, states that she believes Internet facing file transfer servers are being attacked. Which of the following is evidence that would aid Ann in making a case to management that action needs to be taken to safeguard these servers?

  • A. Provide a report of all the IP addresses that are connecting to the systems and their locations
  • B. Establish alerts at a certain threshold to notify the analyst of high activity
  • C. Provide a report showing the file transfer logs of the servers
  • D. Compare the current activity to the baseline of normal activity

Answer: D

Explanation:
In risk assessment a baseline forms the foundation for how an organization needs to increase or enhance its current level of security. This type of assessment will provide Ann with the necessary information to take to management.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Reports of IP addresses that connect to the systems and their locations does not prove that your servers are being attacked; it just shows who is connecting.
B: High activity does not necessarily mean attacks being carried out.
C: Logs reveal specific activities and the sequence of events that occurred. The file transfer logs of the servers still have to be compared to a baseline of what is normal.
References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 210, 235

NEW QUESTION 15
Legal authorities notify a company that its network has been compromised for the second time in two years. The investigation shows the attackers were able to use the same vulnerability on different systems in both attacks. Which of the following would have allowed the security team to use historical information to protect against the second attack?

  • A. Key risk indicators
  • B. Lessons learned
  • C. Recovery point objectives
  • D. Tabletop exercise

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 16
A security incident responder discovers an attacker has gained access to a network and has overwritten key system files with backdoor software. The server was reimaged and patched offline. Which of the following tools should be implemented to detect similar attacks?

  • A. Vulnerability scanner
  • B. TPM
  • C. Host-based firewall
  • D. File integrity monitor
  • E. NIPS

Answer: CD

NEW QUESTION 17
An organization is selecting a SaaS provider to replace its legacy, in house Customer Resource Management (CRM) application. Which of the following ensures the organization mitigates the risk of managing separate user credentials?

  • A. Ensure the SaaS provider supports dual factor authentication.
  • B. Ensure the SaaS provider supports encrypted password transmission and storage.
  • C. Ensure the SaaS provider supports secure hash file exchange.
  • D. Ensure the SaaS provider supports role-based access control.
  • E. Ensure the SaaS provider supports directory services federatio

Answer: E

Explanation:
A SaaS application that has a federation server within the customer's network that interfaces with the customer's own enterprise user-directory service can provide single sign-on authentication. This federation server has a trust relationship with a corresponding federation server located within the SaaS provider's network.
Single sign-on will mitigate the risk of managing separate user credentials. Incorrect Answers:
A: Dual factor authentication will provide identification of users via a combination of two different components. It will not, however, mitigate the risk of managing separate user credentials.
B: The transmission and storage of encrypted passwords will not mitigate the risk of managing separate user credentials.
C: A hash file is a file that has been converted into a numerical string by a mathematical algorithm, and has to be unencrypted with a hash key to be understood. It will not, however, mitigate the risk of managing separate user credentials.
D: Role-based access control (RBAC) refers to the restriction of system access to authorized users. It will not, however, mitigate the risk of managing separate user credentials.
References:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa905332.aspx https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Two-factor_authentication https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Encryption http://www.wisegeek.com/what-are-hash-files.htm https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Role-based_access_control

NEW QUESTION 18
Company policy requires that all company laptops meet the following baseline requirements: Software requirements:
Antivirus
Anti-malware Anti-spyware Log monitoring
Full-disk encryption
Terminal services enabled for RDP Administrative access for local users Hardware restrictions:
Bluetooth disabled FireWire disabled WiFi adapter disabled
Ann, a web developer, reports performance issues with her laptop and is not able to access any network resources. After further investigation, a bootkit was discovered and it was trying to access external websites. Which of the following hardening techniques should be applied to mitigate this specific issue from reoccurring? (Select TWO).

  • A. Group policy to limit web access
  • B. Restrict VPN access for all mobile users
  • C. Remove full-disk encryption
  • D. Remove administrative access to local users
  • E. Restrict/disable TELNET access to network resources
  • F. Perform vulnerability scanning on a daily basis
  • G. Restrict/disable USB access

Answer: DG

Explanation:
A rootkit is a collection of computer software, typically malicious, designed to enable access to a computer or areas of its software that would not otherwise be allowed (for example, to an unauthorized user) while at the same time masking its existence or the existence of other software. A bootkit is similar to a rootkit except the malware infects the master boot record on a hard disk. Malicious software such as bootkits or rootkits typically require administrative privileges to be installed.
Therefore, one method of preventing such attacks is to remove administrative access for local users. A common source of malware infections is portable USB flash drives. The flash drives are often plugged into less secure computers such as a user’s home computer and then taken to work and plugged in to a work computer. We can prevent this from happening by restricting or disabling access to USB devices.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Using a group policy to limit web access is not a practical solution. Users in a company often require Web access so restricting it will affect their ability to do their jobs.
B: Rootkits or Bootkits would not be caught by connecting to the network over a VPN so disabling VPN access will not help.
C: Removing full-disk encryption will not prevent Bootkits.
E: Bootkits are not caught by connecting to network resources using Telnet connection so disabling Telnet access to resources will not help.
F: Performing vulnerability scanning on a daily basis might help you to quickly detect Bootkits. However, vulnerability scanning does nothing to actually prevent the Bootkits.
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rootkit

NEW QUESTION 19
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