CompTIA CAS-003 Free Practice Questions 2019

Exam Code: CAS-003 (), Exam Name: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP), Certification Provider: CompTIA Certifitcation, Free Today! Guaranteed Training- Pass CAS-003 Exam.

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A newly hired systems administrator is trying to connect a new and fully updated, but very customized, Android device to access corporate resources. However, the MDM enrollment process continually fails. The administrator asks a security team member to look into the issue. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the MDM is not allowing enrollment?

  • A. The OS version is not compatible
  • B. The OEM is prohibited
  • C. The device does not support FDE
  • D. The device is rooted

Answer: D

A recent penetration test identified that a web server has a major vulnerability. The web server hosts a critical shipping application for the company and requires 99.99% availability. Attempts to fix the vulnerability would likely break the application. The shipping application is due to be replaced in the next three months. Which of the following would BEST secure the web server until the replacement web server is ready?

  • A. Patch management
  • B. Antivirus
  • C. Application firewall
  • D. Spam filters
  • E. HIDS

Answer: E

A system worth $100,000 has an exposure factor of eight percent and an ARO of four. Which of the following figures is the system’s SLE?

  • A. $2,000
  • B. $8,000
  • C. $12,000
  • D. $32,000

Answer: B

Explanation: Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is mathematically expressed as: Asset value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF) SLE = AV x EF = $100 000 x 8% = $ 8 000

A vulnerability scanner report shows that a client-server host monitoring solution operating in the credit card corporate environment is managing SSL sessions with a weak algorithm which does not meet corporate policy. Which of the following are true statements? (Select TWO).

  • A. The X509 V3 certificate was issued by a non trusted public CA.
  • B. The client-server handshake could not negotiate strong ciphers.
  • C. The client-server handshake is configured with a wrong priority.
  • D. The client-server handshake is based on TLS authentication.
  • E. The X509 V3 certificate is expired.
  • F. The client-server implements client-server mutual authentication with different certificate

Answer: BC

Explanation: The client-server handshake could not negotiate strong ciphers. This means that the system is not configured to support the strong ciphers provided by later versions of the SSL protocol. For example, if the system is configured to support only SSL version 1.1, then only a weak cipher will be supported. The client-server handshake is configured with a wrong priority. The client sends a list of SSL versions it supports and priority should be given to the highest version it supports. For example, if the client supports SSL versions 1.1, 2 and 3, then the server should use version 3. If the priority is not configured correctly (if it uses the lowest version) then version 1.1 with its weak algorithm will be used.
Incorrect Answers:
A: If the X509 V3 certificate was issued by a non-trusted public CA, then the client would receive an error saying the certificate is not trusted. However, an X509 V3 certificate would not cause a weak algorithm.
D: TLS provides the strongest algorithm; even stronger than SSL version 3.
E: If the X509 V3 certificate had expired, then the client would receive an error saying the certificate is not trusted due to being expired. However, an X509 V3 certificate would not cause a weak algorithm.
F: SSL does not mutual authentication with different certificates. References: "" nderstanding-ssl-hHYPERLINK "" andshake-protocol

The DLP solution has been showing some unidentified encrypted data being sent using FTP to a remote server. A vulnerability scan found a collection of Linux servers that are missing OS level patches. Upon further investigation, a technician notices that there are a few unidentified processes running on a number of the servers. What would be a key FIRST step for the data security team to undertake at this point?

  • A. Capture process ID data and submit to anti-virus vendor for review.
  • B. Reboot the Linux servers, check running processes, and install needed patches.
  • C. Remove a single Linux server from production and place in quarantine.
  • D. Notify upper management of a security breach.
  • E. Conduct a bit level image, including RAM, of one or more of the Linux server

Answer: E

Explanation: Incident management (IM) is a necessary part of a security program. When effective, it mitigates business impact, identifies weaknesses in controls, and helps fine-tune response processes.
In this question, an attack has been identified and confirmed. When a server is compromised or used to commit a crime, it is often necessary to seize it for forensics analysis. Security teams often face two challenges when trying to remove a physical server from service: retention of potential evidence in volatile storage or removal of a device from a critical business process.
Evidence retention is a problem when the investigator wants to retain RAM content. For example, removing power from a server starts the process of mitigating business impact, but it also denies forensic analysis of data, processes, keys, and possible footprints left by an attacker.
A full a bit level image, including RAM should be taken of one or more of the Linux servers. In many cases, if your environment has been deliberately attacked, you may want to take legal action against the perpetrators. In order to preserve this option, you should gather evidence that can be used
against them, even if a decision is ultimately made not to pursue such action. It is extremely important to back up the compromised systems as soon as possible. Back up the systems prior to performing any actions that could affect data integrity on the original media.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Capturing process ID data and submitting it to anti-virus vendor for review would not be the first step. Furthermore, it is unlikely that a virus is the cause of the problem on the LINUX servers. It is much more likely that the missing OS level patches left the systems vulnerable.
B: Rebooting the Linux servers would lose the contents of the running RAM. This may be needed for litigation so a full backup including RAM should be taken first. Then the servers can be cleaned and patched.
C: Removing a single Linux server from production and placing it in quarantine would probably involve powering off the server. Powering off the server would lose the contents of the running RAM. This may be needed for litigation so a full backup including RAM should be taken first.
D: Notifying upper management of a security breach probably should be done after the security breach is contained. You should follow standard incident management procedures first. Reporting on the incident is one of the later steps in the process.
References: " Steps-to-Incident-Management-in-a-Virtualized-Environment"ve-Steps-to-Incident-Management-ina-
https://technet.miHYPERLINK "

The helpdesk manager wants to find a solution that will enable the helpdesk staff to better serve company employees who call with computer-related problems. The helpdesk staff is currently unable to perform effective troubleshooting and relies on callers to describe their technology problems. Given that the helpdesk staff is located within the company headquarters and 90% of the callers are telecommuters, which of the following tools should the helpdesk manager use to make the staff more effective at troubleshooting while at the same time reducing company costs? (Select TWO).

  • A. Web cameras
  • B. Email
  • C. Instant messaging
  • D. BYOD
  • E. Desktop sharing
  • F. Presence

Answer: CE

Explanation: C: Instant messaging (IM) allows two-way communication in near real time, allowing users to collaborate, hold informal chat meetings, and share files and information. Some IM platforms have added encryption, central logging, and user access controls. This can be used to replace calls between the end-user and the helpdesk.
E: Desktop sharing allows a remote user access to another user’s desktop and has the ability to function as a remote system administration tool. This can allow the helpdesk to determine the cause of the problem on the end-users desktop.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Web cameras can be used for videoconferencing. This can be used to replace calls between the end-user and the helpdesk but would require the presence of web cameras and sufficient bandwidth. B: Email can be used to replace calls between the end-user and the helpdesk but email communication is not in real-time.
D: Bring your own device (BYOD) is a relatively new phenomena in which company employees are allowed to connect their personal devices, such as smart phones and tablets to the corporate network and use those devices for work purposes.
F: Presence is an Apple software product that is similar to Windows Remote Desktop. It gives users access to their Mac's files wherever they are. It also allows users to share fi les and data between a Mac, iPhone, and iPad.
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 347, 348, 351

A large organization has recently suffered a massive credit card breach. During the months of Incident Response, there were multiple attempts to assign blame for whose fault it was that the incident occurred. In which part of the incident response phase would this be addressed in a controlled and productive manner?

  • A. During the Identification Phase
  • B. During the Lessons Learned phase
  • C. During the Containment Phase
  • D. During the Preparation Phase

Answer: B

Explanation: The Lessons Learned phase is the final step in the Incident Response process, when everyone involved reviews what happened and why.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Identification Phase is the second step in the Incident Response process that deals with the detection of events and incidents.
C: The Containment Phase is the third step in the Incident Response process that deals with the planning, training, and execution of the incident response plan.
D: The Preparation Phase is the first step in the Incident Response process that deals with policies and procedures required to attend to the potential of security incidents.
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 249

A security manager is looking into the following vendor proposal for a cloud-based SIEM solution. The intention is that the cost of the SIEM solution will be justified by having reduced the number of incidents and therefore saving on the amount spent investigating incidents.
External cloud-based software as a service subscription costing $5,000 per month. Expected to reduce the number of current incidents per annum by 50%.
The company currently has ten security incidents per annum at an average cost of $10,000 per incident. Which of the following is the ROI for this proposal after three years?

  • A. -$30,000
  • B. $120,000
  • C. $150,000
  • D. $180,000

Answer: A

Explanation: Return on investment = Net profit / Investment where: Net profit = gross profit - expenses.
Return on investment = (gain from investment – cost of investment) / cost of investment Subscriptions = 5,000 x 12 = 60,000 per annum
10 incidents @ 10,000 = 100.000 per annum reduce by 50% = 50,000 per annum
Thus the rate of Return is -10,000 per annum and that makes for -$30,000 after three years. References:
http://www.finHYPERLINK "" ment.html

A company provides on-demand cloud computing resources for a sensitive project. The company implements a fully virtualized datacenter and terminal server access with two-factor authentication for customer access to the administrative website. The security administrator at the company has uncovered a breach in data confidentiality. Sensitive data from customer A was found on a hidden directory within the VM of company B. Company B is not in the same industry as company A and the two are not competitors. Which of the following has MOST likely occurred?

  • A. Both VMs were left unsecured and an attacker was able to explogt network vulnerabilities to access each and move the data.
  • B. A stolen two factor token was used to move data from one virtual guest to another host on the same network segment.
  • C. A hypervisor server was left un-patched and an attacker was able to use a resource exhaustion attack to gain unauthorized access.
  • D. An employee with administrative access to the virtual guests was able to dump the guest memory onto a mapped disk.

Answer: A

Explanation: In this question, two virtual machines have been accessed by an attacker. The question is asking what is MOST likely to have occurred.
It is common for operating systems to not be fully patched. Of the options given, the most likely occurrence is that the two VMs were not fully patched allowing an attacker to access each of them. The attacker could then copy data from one VM and hide it in a hidden folder on the other VM. Incorrect Answers:
B: The two VMs are from different companies. Therefore, the two VMs would use different twofactor tokens; one for each company. For this answer to be correct, the attacker would have to steal
both two-factor tokens. This is not the most likely answer.
C: Resource exhaustion is a simple denial of service condition which occurs when the resources necessary to perform an action are entirely consumed, therefore preventing that action from taking place. A resource exhaustion attack is not used to gain unauthorized access to a system.
D: The two VMs are from different companies so it can’t be an employee from the two companies. It is possible (although unlikely) than an employee from the hosting company had administrative access to both VMs. Even if that were the case, the employee would not dump the memory to a mapped disk to copy the information. With administrative access, the employee could copy the data using much simpler methods.

A server ( on the corporate network is experiencing a DoS from a number of marketing desktops that have been compromised and are connected to a separate network segment. The security engineer implements the following configuration on the management router:
CAS-003 dumps exhibit
Which of the following is the engineer implementing?

  • A. Remotely triggered black hole
  • B. Route protection
  • C. Port security
  • D. Transport security
  • E. Address space layout randomization

Answer: B

Two new technical SMB security settings have been enforced and have also become policies that increase secure communications.
Network Client: Digitally sign communication Network Server: Digitally sign communication
A storage administrator in a remote location with a legacy storage array, which contains timesensitive data, reports employees can no longer connect to their department shares. Which of the following mitigation strategies should an information security manager recommend to the data owner?

  • A. Accept the risk, reverse the settings for the remote location, and have the remote location file a risk exception until the legacy storage device can be upgraded
  • B. Accept the risk for the remote location, and reverse the settings indefinitely since the legacy storage device will not be upgraded
  • C. Mitigate the risk for the remote location by suggesting a move to a cloud service provide
  • D. Have the remote location request an indefinite risk exception for the use of cloud storage
  • E. Avoid the risk, leave the settings alone, and decommission the legacy storage device

Answer: A

The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of a small start-up company wants to set up offices around the country for the sales staff to generate business. The company needs an effective communication solution to remain in constant contact with each other, while maintaining a secure business environment. A junior-level administrator suggests that the company and the sales staff stay connected via free social medi

  • A. Which of the following decisions is BEST for the CEO to make?
  • B. Social media is an effective solution because it is easily adaptable to new situations.
  • C. Social media is an ineffective solution because the policy may not align with the business.
  • D. Social media is an effective solution because it implements SSL encryption.
  • E. Social media is an ineffective solution because it is not primarily intended for business applications.

Answer: B

Explanation: Social media networks are designed to draw people’s attention quickly and to connect people is thus the main focus; security is not the main concern. Thus the CEO should decide that it would be ineffective to use social media in the company as it does not align with the company business. Incorrect Answers:
A: Social media is not designed to be easily adaptable to new situations in a workplace.
C: Social media does not necessarily make use of SSL encryption since it is designed to draw people’s attention and connect them quickly.
D: Social media, though a great channel for communication is not intended for business applications. References:
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 290-293

select id, firstname, lastname from authors User input= firstname= Hack;man lastname=Johnson
Which of the following types of attacks is the user attempting?

  • A. XML injection
  • B. Command injection
  • C. Cross-site scripting
  • D. SQL injection

Answer: D

Explanation: The code in the question is SQL code. The attack is a SQL injection attack.
SQL injection is a code injection technique, used to attack data-driven applications, in which malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g. to dump the database contents to the attacker). SQL injection must explogt a security vulnerability in an application's software, for example, when user input is either incorrectly filtered for string literal escape characters embedded in SQL statements or user input is not strongly typed and unexpectedly executed. SQL injection is mostly known as an attack vector for websites but can be used to attack any type of SQL database.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The code in the question is not XML code. Therefore this is not an XML injection attack so this answer is incorrect.
B: Command injection is an attack in which the goal is execution of arbitrary commands on the host
operating system via a vulnerable application. Command injection attacks are possible when an application passes unsafe user supplied data (forms, cookies, HTTP headers etc.) to a system shell. The code in the question is not the type of code you would use in a command injection attack.
C: Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a type of computer security vulnerability typically found in Web applications. XSS enables attackers to inject client-side script into Web pages viewed by other users. The code in the question is not the type of code you would use in an XSS attack.

A forensic analyst suspects that a buffer overflow exists in a kernel module. The analyst executes the following command:
dd if=/dev/ram of=/tmp/mem/dmp
The analyst then reviews the associated output:
However, the analyst is unable to find any evidence of the running shell. Which of the following of the MOST likely reason the analyst cannot find a process ID for the shell?

  • A. The NX bit is enabled
  • B. The system uses ASLR
  • C. The shell is obfuscated
  • D. The code uses dynamic libraries

Answer: B

An engineer is assisting with the design of a new virtualized environment that will house critical company services and reduce the datacenter’s physical footprint. The company has expressed concern about the integrity of operating systems and wants to ensure a vulnerability explogted in one datacenter segment would not lead to the compromise of all others. Which of the following design objectives should the engineer complete to BEST mitigate the company’s concerns? (Choose two.)

  • A. Deploy virtual desktop infrastructure with an OOB management network
  • B. Employ the use of vTPM with boot attestation
  • C. Leverage separate physical hardware for sensitive services and data
  • D. Use a community CSP with independently managed security services
  • E. Deploy to a private cloud with hosted hypervisors on each physical machine

Answer: AC

Legal authorities notify a company that its network has been compromised for the second time in two years. The investigation shows the attackers were able to use the same vulnerability on different systems in both attacks. Which of the following would have allowed the security team to use historical information to protect against the second attack?

  • A. Key risk indicators
  • B. Lessons learned
  • C. Recovery point objectives
  • D. Tabletop exercise

Answer: A

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