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2021 Apr SY0-401 test question
Q371. Which of the following uses port 22 by default? (Select THREE).
A. SSH
B. SSL
C. TLS
D. SFTP
E. SCP
F. FTPS
G. SMTP
H. SNMP
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22.
Q372. A network administrator is looking for a way to automatically update company browsers so they import a list of root certificates from an online source. This online source will then be responsible for tracking which certificates are to be trusted or not trusted. Which of the following BEST describes the service that should be implemented to meet these requirements?
A. Trust model
B. Key escrow
C. OCSP
D. PKI
Answer: A
Explanation:
In this scenario we can put a CA in the local network and use an online CA as root CA in a hierarchical trust model. A trust Model is collection of rules that informs application on how to decide the legitimacy of a Digital Certificate. In a hierarchical trust model, also known as a tree, a root CA at the top provides all of the information. The intermediate CAs are next in the hierarchy, and they trust only information provided by the root CA. The root CA also trusts intermediate CAs that are in their level in the hierarchy and none that aren’t. This arrangement allows a high level of control at all levels of the hierarchical tree.
Q373. Which of the following should a company implement to BEST mitigate from zero-day malicious code executing on employees' computers?
A. Least privilege accounts
B. Host-based firewalls
C. Intrusion Detection Systems
D. Application white listing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Q374. Which of the following assets is MOST likely considered for DLP?
A. Application server content
B. USB mass storage devices
C. Reverse proxy
D. Print server
Answer: B
Explanation:
Data loss prevention (DLP) systems monitor the contents of systems (workstations, servers, and networks) to make sure that key content is not deleted or removed. They also monitor who is using the data (looking for unauthorized access) and transmitting the data. A USB presents the most likely device to be used to steal data because of its physical size.
Q375. Which of the following is best practice to put at the end of an ACL?
A. Implicit deny
B. Time of day restrictions
C. Implicit allow
D. SNMP string
Answer: A
Explanation:
An implicit deny clause is implied at the end of each ACL. This implies that if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you’re denied access by default. The implicit deny clause is set by the system.
Up to date SY0-401 real exam:
Q376. An internal auditing team would like to strengthen the password policy to support special characters. Which of the following types of password controls would achieve this goal?
A. Add reverse encryption
B. Password complexity
C. Increase password length
D. Allow single sign on
Answer: B
Explanation:
Generally, the minimum password length is considered to be 8 upper and lowercase characters. The use of at least one non-alpha character like punctuation, special characters, or numbers, combined with the password length produces strong passwords. Strong passwords are produced by the combination of a password’s length and complexity.
Q377. After an assessment, auditors recommended that an application hosting company should contract with additional data providers for redundant high speed Internet connections. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this recommendation? (Select TWO).
A. To allow load balancing for cloud support
B. To allow for business continuity if one provider goes out of business
C. To eliminate a single point of failure
D. To allow for a hot site in case of disaster
E. To improve intranet communication speeds
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
A high-speed internet connection to a second data provider could be used to keep an up-to-date replicate of the main site. In case of problem on the first site, operation can quickly switch to the second site. This eliminates the single point of failure and allows the business to continue uninterrupted on the second site. Note: Recovery Time Objective The recovery time objective (RTO) is the maximum amount of time that a process or service is allowed to be down and the consequences still be considered acceptable. Beyond this time, the break in business continuity is considered to affect the business negatively. The RTO is agreed on during BIA creation.
Q378. Sara, a hacker, is completing a website form to request a free coupon. The site has a field that limits the request to 3 or fewer coupons. While submitting the form, Sara runs an application on her machine to intercept the HTTP POST command and change the field from 3 coupons to 30.
Which of the following was used to perform this attack?
A. SQL injection
B. XML injection
C. Packet sniffer
D. Proxy
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a web user takes advantage of a weakness with SQL by entering values that they should not, it is known as a SQL injection attack. Similarly, when the user enters values that query XML (known as XPath) with values that take advantage of exploits, it is known as an XML injection attack. XPath works in a similar manner to SQL, except that it does not have the same levels of access control, and taking advantage of weaknesses within can return entire documents. The best way to prevent XML injection attacks is to filter the user’s input and sanitize it to make certain that it does not cause XPath to return more data than it should.
Q379. Which of the following is an indication of an ongoing current problem?
A. Alert
B. Trend
C. Alarm
D. Trap
Answer: C
Explanation:
An alarm indicates that something is wrong and needs to be resolved as soon as possible. Alarms usually continue to sound until the problem is resolved or the alarm is manually silenced.
Q380. Ann a technician received a spear-phishing email asking her to update her personal information by clicking the link within the body of the email. Which of the following type of training would prevent Ann and other employees from becoming victims to such attacks?
A. User Awareness
B. Acceptable Use Policy
C. Personal Identifiable Information
D. Information Sharing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Personally identifiable information (PII) is a catchall for any data that can be used to uniquely identify an individual. This data can be anything from the person’s name to a fingerprint (think biometrics), credit card number, or patient record. Employees should be made aware of this type of attack by means of training.