The Secret Of CompTIA SY0-701 Preparation

Want to know Actualtests SY0-701 Exam practice test features? Want to lear more about CompTIA CompTIA Security+ Exam certification experience? Study Simulation CompTIA SY0-701 answers to Abreast of the times SY0-701 questions at Actualtests. Gat a success with an absolute guarantee to pass CompTIA SY0-701 (CompTIA Security+ Exam) test on your first attempt.

CompTIA SY0-701 Free Dumps Questions Online, Read and Test Now.

NEW QUESTION 1

Which of the following environments would MOST likely be used to assess the execution of component parts of a system at both the hardware and software levels and to measure performance characteristics?

  • A. Test
  • B. Staging
  • C. Development
  • D. Production

Answer: A

Explanation:
The test environment is used to assess the execution of component parts of a system at both the hardware and software levels and to measure performance characteristics. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 2

NEW QUESTION 2

After a WiFi scan of a local office was conducted, an unknown wireless signal was identified Upon investigation, an unknown Raspberry Pi device was found connected to an Ethernet port using a single connection. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of this device?

  • A. loT sensor
  • B. Evil twin
  • C. Rogue access point
  • D. On-path attack

Answer: C

Explanation:
A Raspberry Pi device connected to an Ethernet port could be configured as a rogue access point, allowing an attacker to intercept and analyze network traffic or perform other malicious activities. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives: 3.2 Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts.

NEW QUESTION 3

A security architect is working on an email solution that will send sensitive data. However, funds are not currently available in the budget for building additional infrastructure. Which of the following should the architect choose?

  • A. POP
  • B. IPSec
  • C. IMAP
  • D. PGP

Answer: D

Explanation:
PGP (Pretty Good Privacy) is a commonly used encryption method for email communications to secure the sensitive data being sent. It allows for the encryption of the entire message or just the sensitive parts. It would be an appropriate solution in this case as it doesn't require additional infrastructure to implement.

NEW QUESTION 4

During the onboarding process, an employee needs to create a password for an intranet account. The password must include ten characters, numbers, and letters, and two special characters. Once the password is created, the ‘company will grant the employee access to other company-owned websites based on the intranet profile. Which of the following access management concepts is the company most likely using to safeguard intranet accounts and grant access to multiple sites based on a user's intranet account? (Select two).

  • A. Federation
  • B. Identity proofing
  • C. Password complexity
  • D. Default password changes
  • E. Password manager
  • F. Open authentication

Answer: AF

Explanation:
Federation is an access management concept that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple applications or services that trust the same identity provider. Open authentication is a standard protocol that enables federation by allowing users to use their existing credentials from one service to access another service. The company is most likely using federation and open authentication to safeguard intranet accounts and grant access to multiple sites based on a user’s intranet account. For example, the company could use an identity provider such as Azure AD or Keycloak to manage the user identities and credentials for the intranet account, and then use open authentication to allow the users to access other company-owned websites without having to log in again. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.keycloak.org/
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/connect/whatis-fed

NEW QUESTION 5

A company is enhancing the security of the wireless network and needs to ensure only employees with a valid certificate can authenticate to the network. Which of the following should the
company implement?

  • A. PEAP
  • B. PSK
  • C. WPA3
  • D. WPS

Answer: A

Explanation:
PEAP stands for Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol, which is a protocol that can provide secure authentication for wireless networks. PEAP can use certificates to authenticate the server and the client, or only the server. PEAP can also use other methods, such as passwords or tokens, to authenticate the client. PEAP can ensure only employees with a valid certificate can authenticate to the network.

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following controls would provide the BEST protection against tailgating?

  • A. Access control vestibule
  • B. Closed-circuit television
  • C. Proximity card reader
  • D. Faraday cage

Answer: A

Explanation:
Access control vestibules, also known as mantraps or airlocks, are physical security features that require individuals to pass through two or more doors to enter a secure area. They are effective at preventing tailgating, as only one person can pass through each door at a time.
References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-a-mantrap
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition (SY0-601), page 222

NEW QUESTION 7

A store receives reports that shoppers’ credit card information is being stolen. Upon further analysis, those same shoppers also withdrew money from an ATM in that store.
The attackers are using the targeted shoppers’ credit card information to make online purchases. Which of the following attacks is the MOST probable cause?

  • A. Identity theft
  • B. RFID cloning
  • C. Shoulder surfing
  • D. Card skimming

Answer: D

Explanation:
The attackers are using card skimming to steal shoppers' credit card information, which they use to make online purchases. References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit CompTIA Security+ Study Guide Exam SY0-601, Chapter 5

NEW QUESTION 8

After a phishing scam fora user's credentials, the red team was able to craft payload to deploy on a server. The attack allowed the installation of malicious software that initiates a new remote session
Which of the following types of attacks has occurred?

  • A. Privilege escalation
  • B. Session replay
  • C. Application programming interface
  • D. Directory traversal

Answer: A

Explanation:
"Privilege escalation is the act of exploiting a bug, design flaw, or configuration oversight in an operating system or software application to gain elevated access to resources that are normally protected from an application or user." In this scenario, the red team was able to install malicious software, which would require elevated privileges to access and install. Therefore, the type of attack that occurred is privilege escalation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 111-112

NEW QUESTION 9

A global company is experiencing unauthorized logging due to credential theft and account lockouts caused by brute-force attacks. The company is considering implementing a third-party identity provider to help mitigate these attacks. Which of the following would be the BEST control for the company to require from prospective vendors?

  • A. IP restrictions
  • B. Multifactor authentication
  • C. A banned password list
  • D. A complex password policy

Answer: B

Explanation:
Multifactor authentication (MFA) would be the best control to require from a third-party identity provider to help mitigate attacks such as credential theft and brute-force attacks. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 2

NEW QUESTION 10

A security practitioner is performing due diligence on a vendor that is being considered for cloud services.
Which of the following should the practitioner consult for the best insight into the
current security posture of the vendor?

  • A. PCI DSS standards
  • B. SLA contract
  • C. CSF framework
  • D. SOC 2 report

Answer: D

Explanation:
A SOC 2 report is a document that provides an independent assessment of a service organization’s controls related to the Trust Services Criteria of Security, Availability, Processing Integrity, Confidentiality, or Privacy. A SOC 2 report can help a security practitioner evaluate the current security posture of a vendor that provides cloud services1.

NEW QUESTION 11

Which of the following cloud models provides clients with servers, storage, and networks but nothing else?

  • A. SaaS
  • B. PaaS
  • C. laaS
  • D. DaaS

Answer: C

Explanation:
laaS (Infrastructure as a Service) is a cloud model that provides clients with servers, storage, and networks but nothing else. It allows clients to have more control and flexibility over the configuration and management of their infrastructure resources, but also requires them to install and maintain their own operating systems, applications, etc.

NEW QUESTION 12

An audit identified Pll being utilized in the development environment of a crit-ical application. The Chief Privacy Officer (CPO) is adamant that this data must be removed: however, the developers are concerned that without real data they cannot perform functionality tests and search for specific data. Which of the following should a security professional implement to best satisfy both the CPOs and the development team's requirements?

  • A. Data purge
  • B. Data encryption
  • C. Data masking
  • D. Data tokenization

Answer: D

Explanation:
Data tokenization is a technique of replacing sensitive data with non-sensitive substitutes called tokens that have no intrinsic value or meaning. It can satisfy both the CPO’s and the development team’s requirements by removing personally identifiable information (PII) from the development environment of a critical application while preserving the functionality and format of the data for testing purposes.

NEW QUESTION 13

A security engineer is installing a WAF to protect the company's website from malicious web requests over SSL. Which of the following is needed to meet the objective?

  • A. A reverse proxy
  • B. A decryption certificate
  • C. A split-tunnel VPN
  • D. Load-balanced servers

Answer: B

Explanation:
A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is a security solution that protects web applications from various types of attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and others. It is typically deployed in front of web servers to inspect incoming traffic and filter out malicious requests.
To protect the company’s website from malicious web requests over SSL, a decryption certificate is needed to decrypt the SSL traffic before it reaches the WAF. This allows the WAF to inspect the traffic and filter out malicious requests.

NEW QUESTION 14

An application owner reports suspicious activity on an internal financial application from various internal users within the past 14 days. A security analyst notices the following:
•Financial transactions were occurring during irregular time frames and outside of business hours by unauthorized users.
•Internal users in question were changing their passwords frequently during that time period.
•A jump box that several domain administrator users use to connect to remote devices was recently compromised.
•The authentication method used in the environment is NTLM.
Which of the following types of attacks is MOST likely being used to gain unauthorized access?

  • A. Pass-the-hash
  • B. Brute-force
  • C. Directory traversal
  • D. Replay

Answer: A

Explanation:
The suspicious activity reported by the application owner, combined with the recent compromise of the jump box and the use of NTLM authentication, suggests that an attacker is likely using a pass-the-hash attack to gain unauthorized access to the financial application. This type of attack involves stealing hashed passwords from memory and then using them to authenticate as the compromised user without needing to know the user's plaintext password. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 5

NEW QUESTION 15

A company is switching to a remote work model for all employees. All company and employee resources will be in the cloud. Employees must use their personal computers to access the cloud computing environment. The company will manage the operating system. Which of the following deployment models is the company implementing?

  • A. CYOD
  • B. MDM
  • C. COPE
  • D. VDI

Answer: D

Explanation:
According to Professor Messer’s video1, VDI stands for Virtual Desktop Infrastructure and it is a deploy model where employees use their personal computers to access a virtual machine that runs the company’s operating system and applications.
In the scenario described, the company is implementing a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) deployment model [1]. This allows employees to access the cloud computing environment using their personal computers, while the company manages the operating system. The VDI model is suitable for remote work scenarios because it provides secure and centralized desktop management, while allowing employees to access desktops from any device.

NEW QUESTION 16

A security analyst needs to recommend a solution that will allow current Active Directory accounts and groups to be used for access controls on both network and remote-access devices. Which of the
following should the analyst recommend? (Select two).

  • A. TACACS+
  • B. RADIUS
  • C. OAuth
  • D. OpenlD
  • E. Kerberos
  • F. CHAP

Answer: BE

Explanation:
RADIUS and Kerberos are two protocols that can be used to integrate Active Directory accounts and groups with network and remote-access devices. RADIUS is a protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for network access. It can use Active Directory as a backend database to store user credentials and group memberships. Kerberos is a protocol that provides secure authentication and encryption for network services. It is the default authentication protocol for Active Directory and can be used by remote-access devices that support it.

NEW QUESTION 17

Which of the following can best protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system?

  • A. Host-based firewall
  • B. System isolation
  • C. Least privilege
  • D. Application allow list

Answer: C

Explanation:
Least privilege is a security principle that states that users should only be granted the permissions they need to do their job. This helps to protect against malware infections by preventing users from installing unauthorized software.
A host-based firewall can help to protect against malware infections by blocking malicious traffic from reaching a computer. However, it cannot prevent a user from installing malware if they have the necessary permissions.
System isolation is the practice of isolating systems from each other to prevent malware from spreading. This can be done by using virtual machines or network segmentation. However, system isolation can be complex and expensive to implement.
An application allow list is a list of applications that are allowed to run on a computer. This can help to prevent malware infections by preventing users from running unauthorized applications. However, an application allow list can be difficult to maintain and can block legitimate applications.
Therefore, the best way to protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system is to use the principle of least privilege. This will help to ensure that users only have the permissions they need to do their job, which will reduce the risk of malware infections. Here are some additional benefits of least privilege:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit It can help to improve security by reducing the attack surface.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit It can help to simplify security management by reducing the number of permissions that need to be managed.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit It can help to improve compliance by reducing the risk of data breaches.

NEW QUESTION 18

A network administrator needs to determine the sequence of a server farm's logs. Which of the following should the administrator consider? (Select two).

  • A. Chain of custody
  • B. Tags
  • C. Reports
  • D. Time stamps
  • E. Hash values
  • F. Time offset

Answer: DF

Explanation:
A server farm’s logs are records of events that occur on a group of servers that provide the same service or function. Logs can contain information such as date, time, source, destination, message, error code, and severity level. Logs can help administrators monitor the performance, security, and availability of the servers and troubleshoot any issues.
To determine the sequence of a server farm’s logs, the administrator should consider the following factors:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Time stamps: Time stamps are indicators of when an event occurred on a server. Time stamps can help administrators sort and correlate events across different servers based on chronological order. However, time stamps alone may not be sufficient to determine the sequence of events if the servers have different time zones or clock settings.
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Time offset: Time offset is the difference between the local time of a server and a reference time, such as Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) or Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). Time offset can help administrators adjust and synchronize the time stamps of different servers to a common reference time and eliminate any discrepancies caused by time zones or clock settings.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/server-manager/view-event-logs

NEW QUESTION 19
......

P.S. Easily pass SY0-701 Exam with 0 Q&As Certshared Dumps & pdf Version, Welcome to Download the Newest Certshared SY0-701 Dumps: https://www.certshared.com/exam/SY0-701/ (0 New Questions)