A Review Of Highest Quality SY0-701 Latest Exam

Exambible offers free demo for SY0-701 exam. "CompTIA Security+ Exam", also known as SY0-701 exam, is a CompTIA Certification. This set of posts, Passing the CompTIA SY0-701 exam, will help you answer those questions. The SY0-701 Questions & Answers covers all the knowledge points of the real exam. 100% real CompTIA SY0-701 exams and revised by experts!

Online SY0-701 free questions and answers of New Version:

NEW QUESTION 1

A company is adopting a BYOD policy and is looking for a comprehensive solution to protect company information on user devices. Which of the following solutions would best support the policy?

  • A. Mobile device management
  • B. Full device encryption
  • C. Remote wipe
  • D. Biometrics

Answer: A

Explanation:
Mobile device management (MDM) is a solution that allows an organization to manage, monitor, and secure mobile devices that are used by employees for work purposes. It can protect company information on user devices by enforcing policies and controls such as encryption, password, remote wipe, etc., and detecting and preventing unauthorized access or data leakage.

NEW QUESTION 2

A company was recently breached Pan of the company's new cybersecurity strategy is to centralize? the togs horn all security devices Which of the following components forwards the logs to a central source?

  • A. Log enrichment
  • B. Log queue
  • C. Log parser
  • D. Log collector

Answer: D

Explanation:
A log collector is a component that forwards the logs from all security devices to a central source. A log collector can be a software tool or a hardware appliance that collects logs from various sources, such as firewalls, routers, servers, applications, or endpoints. A log collector can also perform functions such as log filtering, parsing, aggregation, normalization, and enrichment. A log collector can help centralize logging by sending the collected logs to a central log server or a security information and event management (SIEM) system for further analysis and correlation.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://geekflare.com/open-source-centralized-logging/

NEW QUESTION 3

Which of the following best describes a tool used by an organization to identi-fy, log, and track any potential risks and corresponding risk information?

  • A. Quantitative risk assessment
  • B. Risk register
  • C. Risk control assessment
  • D. Risk matrix

Answer: B

Explanation:
A risk register is a tool used by an organization to identify, log, and track any potential risks and corresponding risk information. It helps to document the risks, their likelihood, impact, mitigation strategies, and status. A risk register is an essential part of risk management and can be used for projects or organizations.

NEW QUESTION 4

After segmenting the network, the network manager wants to control the traffic between the segments. Which of the following should the manager use to control the network traffic?

  • A. A DMZ
  • B. A VPN a
  • C. A VLAN
  • D. An ACL

Answer: D

Explanation:
After segmenting the network, a network manager can use an access control list (ACL) to control the traffic between the segments. An ACL is a set of rules that permit or deny traffic based on its characteristics, such as the source and destination IP addresses, protocol type, and port number. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Exam SY0-501

NEW QUESTION 5

An employee's laptop was stolen last month. This morning, the was returned by the A cyberrsecurity analyst retrieved laptop and has since cybersecurity incident checklist Four incident handlers are responsible for executing the checklist. Which of the following best describes the process for evidence collection assurance?

  • A. Time stamp
  • B. Chain of custody
  • C. Admissibility
  • D. Legal hold

Answer: B

Explanation:
Chain of custody is a process that documents the chronological and logical sequence of custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of materials, including physical or electronic evidence. Chain of custody is important to ensure the integrity and admissibility of evidence in legal proceedings. Chain of custody can help evidence collection assurance by providing proof that the evidence has been handled properly and has not been tampered with or contaminated.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.thoughtco.com/chain-of-custody-4589132

NEW QUESTION 6

A security analyst notices an unusual amount of traffic hitting the edge of the network. Upon examining the logs, the analyst identifies a source IP address and blocks that address from communicating with the network. Even though the analyst is blocking this address, the attack is still ongoing and coming from a large number of different source IP addresses. Which of the following describes this type of attack?

  • A. DDoS
  • B. Privilege escalation
  • C. DNS poisoning
  • D. Buffer overflow

Answer: A

Explanation:
A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is an attempt to make a computer or network resource unavailable to its intended users. This is accomplished by overwhelming the target with a flood of traffic from multiple sources.
In the scenario described, the security analyst identified a source IP address and blocked it from communicating with the network. However, the attack was still ongoing and coming from a large number of different source IP addresses. This indicates that the attack was a DDoS attack.
Privilege escalation is an attack that allows an attacker to gain unauthorized access to a system or network. DNS poisoning is an attack that modifies the DNS records for a domain name, causing users to be redirected to a malicious website. A buffer overflow is an attack that occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a buffer than it is designed to hold.
Therefore, the most likely type of attack in the scenario described is a DDoS attack.

NEW QUESTION 7

The new Chief Information Security Officer at a company has asked the security learn to implement stronger user account policies. The new policies require:
• Users to choose a password unique to their last ten passwords
• Users to not log in from certain high-risk countries
Which of the following should the security team implement? (Select two).

  • A. Password complexity
  • B. Password history
  • C. Geolocation
  • D. Geospatial
  • E. Geotagging
  • F. Password reuse

Answer: BC

Explanation:
Password history is a policy that prevents users from reusing their previous passwords. This can reduce the risk of password cracking or compromise. Geolocation is a policy that restricts users from logging in from certain locations based on their IP address. This can prevent unauthorized access from high-risk countries or regions. References: https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-identity-and-access-management

NEW QUESTION 8

An organization recently released a zero-trust policy that will enforce who is able to remotely access certain data. Authenticated users who access the data must have a need to know, depending on their level of permissions.
Which of the following is the first step the organization should take when implementing the policy?

  • A. Determine a quality CASB solution.
  • B. Configure the DLP policies by user groups.
  • C. Implement agentless NAC on boundary devices.
  • D. Classify all data on the file servers.

Answer: D

Explanation:
zero trust is a security strategy that assumes breach and verifies each request as though it originates from an untrusted network12. A zero trust policy is a set of “allow rules” that specify conditions for accessing certain resources3.
According to one source4, the first step in implementing a zero trust policy is to identify and classify all data and assets in the organization. This helps to determine the level of sensitivity and risk associated with each resource and apply appropriate access controls.
Classifying all data on the file servers is the first step in implementing a zero trust policy because it helps to determine the level of sensitivity and risk associated with each resource and apply appropriate access controls.
Reference: Zero Trust implementation guidance | Microsoft Learn

NEW QUESTION 9

An employee received multiple messages on a mobile device. The messages instructing the employee to pair the device to an unknown device. Which of the following BEST describes What a malicious person might be doing to cause this issue to occur?

  • A. Jamming
  • B. Bluesnarfing
  • C. Evil twin
  • D. Rogue access point

Answer: B

Explanation:
Bluesnarfing is a hacking technique that exploits Bluetooth connections to snatch data from a wireless device. An attacker can perform bluesnarfing when the Bluetooth function is on and your device is discoverable by other devices within range. In some cases, attackers can even make calls from their victim’s phon1e.

NEW QUESTION 10

During an incident a company CIRT determine it is necessary to observe the continued network-based transaction between a callback domain and the malware running on an enterprise PC. Which of the following techniques would be BEST to enable this activity while reducing the risk of lateral spread and the risk that the adversary would notice any changes?

  • A. Physical move the PC to a separate internet pint of presence
  • B. Create and apply micro segmentation rules.
  • C. Emulate the malware in a heavily monitored DM Z segment.
  • D. Apply network blacklisting rules for the adversary domain

Answer: C

Explanation:
To observe the continued network-based transaction between a callback domain and the malware running on an enterprise PC while reducing the risk of lateral spread and the risk that the adversary would notice any changes, the best technique to use is to emulate the malware in a heavily monitored DMZ segment. This is a secure environment that is isolated from the rest of the network and can be heavily monitored to detect any suspicious activity. By emulating the malware in this environment, the activity can be observed without the risk of lateral spread or detection by the adversary. References:
https://www.sans.org/blog/incident-response-fundamentals-why-is-the-dmz-so-important/

NEW QUESTION 11

A company would like to move to the cloud. The company wants to prioritize control and security over cost and ease of management. Which of the following cloud models would best suit this company's priorities?

  • A. Public
  • B. Hybrid
  • C. Community
  • D. Private

Answer: D

Explanation:
A private cloud model would best suit the company's priorities of control and security over cost and ease of management. In a private cloud, the infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization, providing greater control over the environment and the ability to implement strict security measures. This is in contrast to public, community, or hybrid cloud models, where resources are shared among multiple organizations, potentially compromising control and security. While private clouds can be more expensive and more difficult to manage, they the highest level of control and security for the company.
Reference:
- CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601), Section 3.2: "Explain the importance of secure staging deployment concepts."
- Cisco: Private Cloud - https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/cloud/private-cloud.html

NEW QUESTION 12

A network architect wants a server to have the ability to retain network availability even if one of the network switches it is connected to goes down. Which of the following should the architect implement on the server to achieve this goal?

  • A. RAID
  • B. UPS
  • C. NIC teaming
  • D. Load balancing

Answer: C

Explanation:
NIC Teaming is a feature that allows a server to be connected to multiple network switches, providing redundancy and increased network availability. If one of the switches goes down, the server will still be able to send and receive data through one of the other switches. To configure NIC Teaming in Windows Server, see Microsoft's documentation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/nic-teaming. For more information on NIC Teaming and other network redundancy features, refer to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Official Text Book and Resources.

NEW QUESTION 13

Which of the following environments can be stood up in a short period of time, utilizes either dummy data or actual data, and is used to demonstrate and model system capabilities and functionality for a fixed,
agreed-upon duration of time?

  • A. PoC
  • B. Production
  • C. Test
  • D. Development

Answer: A

Explanation:
A proof of concept (PoC) environment can be stood up quickly and is used to demonstrate and model system capabilities and functionality for a fixed, agreed-upon duration of time. This environment can utilize either dummy data or actual data. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Exam SY0-501

NEW QUESTION 14

A company recently experienced an attack during which its main website was Directed to the attacker's web server, allowing the attacker to harvest credentials from unsuspecting customers, Which of the following should the company implement to prevent this type of attack from occurring In the future?

  • A. IPsec
  • B. SSL/TLS
  • C. ONSSEC
  • D. SMIME

Answer: B

Explanation:
To prevent attacks where the main website is directed to the attacker's web server and allowing the attacker to harvest credentials from unsuspecting customers, the company should implement SSL/TLS (Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security) to encrypt the communication between the web server and the clients. This will prevent attackers from intercepting and tampering with the communication, and will also help to verify the identity of the web server to the clients.

NEW QUESTION 15

A security administrator is working on a solution to protect passwords stored in a database against rainbow table attacks Which of the following should the administrator consider?

  • A. Hashing
  • B. Salting
  • C. Lightweight cryptography
  • D. Steganography

Answer: B

Explanation:
Salting is a technique that adds random data to a password before hashing it. This makes the hash output more unique and unpredictable, and prevents attackers from using precomputed tables (such as rainbow tables) to crack the password hash. Salting also reduces the risk of collisions, which occur when different passwords produce the same hash.
References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://auth0.com/blog/adding-salt-to-hashing-a-better-way-to-store-passwords/

NEW QUESTION 16

Which of the following in a forensic investigation should be priorities based on the order of volatility? (Select TWO).

  • A. Page files
  • B. Event logs
  • C. RAM
  • D. Cache
  • E. Stored files
  • F. HDD

Answer: CD

Explanation:
In a forensic investigation, volatile data should be collected first, based on the order of volatility. RAM and Cache are examples of volatile data. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 11

NEW QUESTION 17

Which of the following should a Chief Information Security Officer consider using to take advantage of industry standard guidelines?

  • A. SSAE SOC 2
  • B. GDPR
  • C. PCI DSS
  • D. NIST CSF

Answer: D

Explanation:
NIST CSF (National Institute of Standards and Technology Cybersecurity Framework) is a set of guidelines and best practices for managing cybersecurity risks. It is based on existing standards, guidelines, and practices that are widely recognized and applicable across different sectors and organizations. It provides a common language and framework for understanding, communicating, and managing cybersecurity risks. References: 1
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 7, Domain 1.0: Attacks, Threats, and
Vulnerabilities, Objective 1.4: Explain the techniques used in security assessments 2
CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 8, Domain 2.0: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.1: Explain the importance of secure staging deployment concepts 3 https://www.nist.gov/cyberframework

NEW QUESTION 18

Which of the following tools can assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer's Pll?

  • A. SCAP
  • B. NetFlow
  • C. Antivirus
  • D. DLP

Answer: D

Explanation:
DLP stands for Data Loss Prevention, which is a technology that can monitor, detect and prevent the unauthorized transmission of sensitive data, such as PII (Personally Identifiable Information). DLP can be implemented on endpoints, networks, servers or cloud services to protect data in motion, in use or at rest. DLP can also block or alert on data transfers that violate predefined policies or rules. DLP is the best tool to assist with detecting an employee who has accidentally emailed a file containing a customer’s PII, as it can scan the email content and attachments for any data that matches the criteria of PII and prevent the email from being sent or notify the administrator of the incident. Verified References:
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Data Loss Prevention Guide to Blocking Leaks - CompTIA https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/data-loss-prevention-a-step-by-step-guide-to-blocking-leaks
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Data Loss Prevention – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.1 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-loss-prevention-4/
SY0-701 dumps exhibit Data Loss Prevention – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 2.1 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/data-loss-prevention-3/

NEW QUESTION 19
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